8.9: Chapter Review Questions

Multiple Choice Section

• Use the end‑of‑chapter multiple‑choice section as a regular self‑check tool, not just before exams.
• Read each item carefully, think about what is really being tested (concept, definition, application, or calculation), and choose the option (A, B, C, or D) that best reflects what you have learned in this chapter.
  • After you read through the chapter, attempt all items without looking at your notes; then return to the chapter to review any you missed or felt unsure about.
  • Afterward, explain to yourself why the correct option is right and why the others are not. Finally, repeat the multiple‑choice section a few days later to see what you truly remember and understand.
• Students who consistently use these prompts in this way typically perform better across the course because they turn reading into active practice

1. A couple is undergoing fertility counseling. Semen analysis shows a normal count of hundreds of millions of sperm per ejaculate. The clinician explains that only a small fraction of sperm will ever reach the egg. Although the male ejaculate contains hundreds of millions of sperm:
   A. Most do not reach the oocyte
   B. Most are destroyed by the alkaline environment of the uterus
   C. It takes millions to penetrate the outer layers of the oocyte at once
   D. Most are destroyed by capacitation

2. A diagram in embryology lab shows a sperm approaching the egg. As sperm first reach a recently ovulated oocyte in the uterine tube, they will initially contact which outermost cell layer surrounding the egg?
   A. Acrosome
   B. Corona radiata
   C. Sperm-binding receptors
   D. Zona pellucida

3. After a sperm successfully penetrates the egg, the two haploid nuclei approach each other and merge to form a single diploid nucleus. This fusion of the male and female pronuclei occurs during:
   A. Spermatogenesis
   B. Ovulation
   C. Fertilization
   D. Capacitation

4. Before sperm can successfully undergo the acrosomal reaction and fertilize an oocyte, they must be exposed to conditions in the female reproductive tract that remove certain proteins and lipids from their membranes. Sperm must first complete:
   A. Capacitation
   B. The acrosomal reaction
   C. The cortical reaction
   D. The fast block to polyspermy

5. Early in development, the fertilized egg undergoes rapid mitotic divisions without growth. This cleavage process produces many small daughter cells. These daughter cells are called:
   A. Trophoblasts
   B. Blastocysts
   C. Morulae
   D. Blastomeres

6. A fertilized egg (zygote) undergoes cleavage as it travels down the uterine tube. By the time the conceptus reaches the uterus, it is typically at the blastocyst stage. Upon entering the uterus, the blastocyst first:
   A. Implants immediately into the uterine wall
   B. Continues to divide and float freely for a short time
   C. Disintegrates
   D. Hatches from the endometrium

7. A blastocyst consists of an outer trophoblast and an inner cell mass. The inner cell mass of the blastocyst is destined to become the:
   A. Embryo proper
   B. Trophoblast
   C. Chorionic villi only
   D. Entire placenta

8. During early development, three primary germ layers form. The cells that eventually become the brain and spinal cord are derived from which primary germ layer?
   A. Endoderm
   B. Ectoderm
   C. Acrosome
   D. Mesoderm

9. A clinician explains early pregnancy to a patient. After implantation, the trophoblast normally secretes human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) to maintain the corpus luteum. What would most likely happen if the trophoblast did NOT secrete hCG upon implantation of the blastocyst?
   A. The embryonic cells would not continue to divide
   B. The corpus luteum would continue to produce progesterone and estrogen anyway
   C. Menstruation would occur and flush the blastocyst out of the uterus
   D. The uterine mucosa would not physically envelop the blastocyst

10. As the flat embryonic disc grows, it folds to form a three-dimensional body with a gut and body cavities. During which process does the amnion come to envelop and surround the embryo?
    A. Embryonic folding
    B. Gastrulation
    C. Implantation
    D. Organogenesis

11. A pregnant patient asks how the placenta forms. The clinician explains that it arises from tissues from both the pregnant person and the embryo. The placenta is formed from:
    A. The embryo’s mesenchymal cells only
    B. The pregnant person’s endometrium only
    C. The pregnant person’s endometrium and the embryo’s chorionic membrane
    D. The pregnant person’s endometrium and the embryo’s umbilical cord

12. In the fetal circulation, a small opening between the right and left atria allows blood to bypass the nonfunctional fetal lungs. The foramen ovale causes the fetal circulatory system to bypass the:
    A. Liver
    B. Lungs
    C. Kidneys
    D. Gonads

13. During a prenatal lecture, learners are told that the fetal kidneys begin to produce urine in utero. What happens to the urine excreted by the fetus once the kidneys start functioning?
    A. The umbilical cord carries it directly to the placenta for removal
    B. The endometrium absorbs it into the maternal circulation
    C. It is released into and adds to the amniotic fluid
    D. It is converted into meconium in the intestines

14. A mid-pregnancy ultrasound evaluates fetal development between weeks 9 and 12. Which of the following events typically occurs during weeks 9–12 of fetal development?
    A. Bone marrow begins to assume erythrocyte (red blood cell) production
    B. Meconium begins to accumulate in the intestines
    C. Surfactant production begins in the fetal lungs
    D. The spinal cord begins to be myelinated

15. During pregnancy, progesterone produced by the placenta helps maintain the uterine lining and also prevents new follicles from maturing in the ovaries. Progesterone secreted by the placenta suppresses which pituitary hormones to prevent maturation of ovarian follicles?
    A. LH and estrogen
    B. hCG and FSH
    C. FSH and LH
    D. Estrogen and hCG

16. A pregnant person in the first trimester experiences nausea and vomiting described as “morning sickness.” Which of the following is a commonly proposed biological contributor to morning sickness?
    A. Increased minute ventilation (respiration)
    B. Decreased intestinal peristalsis
    C. Decreased aldosterone secretion
    D. Increased levels of pregnancy-related hormones and blood volume

17. In the last weeks of pregnancy, progesterone levels fall relative to estrogen levels, helping the uterus become more responsive to contraction signals. How does the decrease in progesterone at the end of pregnancy help to bring on labor?
    A. By stimulating FSH production
    B. By decreasing levels of estrogens
    C. By directly dilating the cervix
    D. By decreasing the inhibition of uterine contractility

18. An obstetric team evaluates fetal position before delivery. Which of these fetal presentations is typically the easiest and safest for vaginal birth?
    A. Complete breech (buttocks and feet first)
    B. Vertex occiput anterior (head down, back of head toward front of pelvis)
    C. Frank breech (buttocks first, legs extended)
    D. Vertex occiput posterior (head down, back of head toward back of pelvis)

19. During fetal life, several vascular shunts help divert blood flow. Which of these shunts exists between the right and left atria?
    A. Foramen ovale
    B. Ductus venosus
    C. Ductus arteriosus
    D. Foramen venosus

20. A neonatologist explains to caregivers why newborns have more brown fat than adults. Why is brown fat important in newborns?
    A. It is the primary source of insulation against cold
    B. It can be broken down to generate heat for thermoregulation
    C. It is used as the main energy source between feedings
    D. It can be easily converted to white fat

21. During labor and immediately after birth, the umbilical blood vessels constrict and the placenta is no longer part of the baby’s circulation. This briefly reduces oxygen delivery, leading to a rise in fetal CO₂. Constriction of umbilical blood vessels during birth primarily:
    A. Causes respiratory alkalosis
    B. Inhibits the respiratory center in the brain
    C. Elevates carbon dioxide levels in the blood, stimulating breathing
    D. Both A and B

22. A genetic counselor meets with a family in which one parent has Marfan syndrome, an autosomal dominant connective tissue disorder, and the other parent does not carry the condition. Which statement best describes the risk to each child they conceive?
    1. Female children are more likely than male children to be affected
    2. Male children are more likely than female children to be affected
    3. Each child, regardless of sex, has a 50% chance of inheriting Marfan syndrome
    4. Only children who inherit two altered copies of the gene (one from each parent) will be affected

23. A parent chooses to breastfeed their newborn and asks why early milk (colostrum) is important, even though the volume is small. How is colostrum most important to a newborn in the first days of life?
    A. It helps boost the newborn’s immune system with antibodies
    B. It provides a large amount of fat for energy
    C. It mainly satisfies the newborn’s thirst
    D. It fully satisfies the infant’s appetite and caloric needs

24. A dietitian compares human breast milk and cow’s milk for a family considering formula feeding. Mature human breast milk, compared with cow’s milk, generally:
    A. Has more sodium
    B. Has more calcium
    C. Has more protein
    D. Has more fat and appropriate nutrients tailored to human infants