11.8: Chapter Review Questions

Multiple-Choice Section

• Use the end‑of‑chapter multiple‑choice section as a regular self‑check tool, not just before exams.
• Read each item carefully, think about what is really being tested (concept, definition, application, or calculation), and choose the option (A, B, C, or D) that best reflects what you have learned in this chapter.
  • After you read through the chapter, attempt all items without looking at your notes; then return to the chapter to review any you missed or felt unsure about.
  • Afterward, explain to yourself why the correct option is right and why the others are not. Finally, repeat the multiple‑choice section a few days later to see what you truly remember and understand.
• Students who consistently use these prompts in this way typically perform better across the course because they turn reading into active practice.

1. Which characteristic is unique to most muscles of facial expression compared with other skeletal muscles?
   1. They all originate from the scalp musculature.
   2. They insert onto cartilage around the face.
   3. They insert only onto the facial bones.
   4. They insert into the skin of the face.
2. Which type of muscle acts to assist the agonist in producing a specific movement?
   1. Synergist
   2. Fixator
   3. Insertion
   4. Antagonist
3. During flexion at a typical synovial joint, which of the following best describes the change in joint position?
   1. The angle between the articulating bones is increased.
   2. The angle between the articulating bones is decreased.
   3. The bone moves away from the body’s midline regardless of angle.
   4. The bone moves toward the body’s midline regardless of angle.
4. During contraction of a skeletal muscle acting on a joint, which structure is usually displaced the least?
   1. The origin
   2. The insertion
   3. The ligaments
   4. The joint capsule
5. Which named muscle is a classic example of a convergent fascicle arrangement?
   1. Biceps brachii
   2. Gluteus maximus
   3. Pectoralis major
   4. Rectus femoris
6. Which description best characterizes the architecture of a bipennate muscle?
   1. Muscle fibers insert into a central tendon from one side only.
   2. Muscle fibers insert into a central tendon from both sides at an angle.
   3. Muscle fibers insert into a central tendon from multiple directions around it.
   4. Muscle fibers insert along the entire length of bone on one side only.
7. What can be predicted from the relative positions of a muscle’s origin and insertion across a joint?
   1. The muscle’s specific action at that joint
   2. The exact maximum force the muscle can generate
   3. The precise name assigned to the muscle
   4. The total body mass the muscle can lift
8. The temporalis muscle is located primarily in which region of the head?
   1. On the forehead, over the frontal bone
   2. In the anterior neck, below the mandible
   3. On the lateral side of the skull, above the zygomatic arch
   4. On the chin, over the mental protuberance
9. Which term is most likely to appear in the name of a muscle that moves a limb away from the midline of the body?
   1. Flexor
   2. Adductor
   3. Extensor
   4. Abductor
10. Which muscle is considered the primary agonist for flexion of the head and neck when acting bilaterally?
    1. Occipitofrontalis
    2. Corrugator supercilii
    3. Sternocleidomastoid
    4. Masseter
11. What is the primary action of the masseter muscle?
    1. Swallowing
    2. Chewing by elevating the mandible
    3. Moving the lips during speech
    4. Closing the eyelids
12. The names of the extrinsic muscles of the tongue most commonly share which ending?
    1. Glottis
    2. Glossus
    3. Gluteus
    4. Hyoid

13. What is the primary function of the erector spinae muscle group?
    1. Producing powerful movements of the arms
    2. Stabilizing the pelvic girdle during gait
    3. Maintaining upright posture and extending the vertebral column
    4. Rotating the vertebral column only
14. Which of the following muscles is not part of the anterior abdominal wall musculature?
    1. Quadratus lumborum
    2. Rectus abdominis
    3. Internal oblique
    4. External oblique
15. The linea alba is best described as which of the following?
    1. A small paired muscle that compresses abdominal organs
    2. A midline band of connective tissue separating the right and left rectus abdominis
    3. A long band of collagen fibers that connects the iliac crest to the lateral knee
    4. Another name for the tendinous inscriptions within the rectus abdominis
16. The rhomboid major and minor muscles lie deep to which superficial back muscle?
    1. Rectus abdominis
    2. Scalene muscles
    3. Trapezius
    4. Latissimus dorsi
17. Which muscle is the principal extensor of the forearm at the elbow joint?
    1. Biceps brachii
    2. Triceps brachii
    3. Brachialis
    4. Deltoid
18. Most wrist flexor muscles share which proximal origin?
    1. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus
    2. Medial epicondyle of the humerus
    3. Carpal bones of the wrist
    4. Deltoid tuberosity of the humerus
19. Which combination of muscle groups is primarily responsible for stabilizing the pectoral girdle on the thoracic cage?
    1. Axial and scapular muscles
    2. Axial muscles only
    3. Appendicular muscles only
    4. Axial and appendicular muscles
20. The large muscle group that anchors the lower limb to the pelvic girdle and produces powerful extension at the hip joint is which group?
    1. Gluteal group
    2. Obturator group
    3. Adductor group
    4. Abductor group
21. Which muscle is best known for enabling the cross-legged sitting position due to its combined actions at the hip and knee?
    1. Gluteus maximus
    2. Piriformis
    3. Gracilis
    4. Sartorius
22. Which of the following is generally considered the largest superficial muscle in the posterior compartment of the lower leg?
    1. Soleus
    2. Gastrocnemius
    3. Tibialis anterior
    4. Tibialis posterior
23. The vastus intermedius muscle of the quadriceps femoris group lies deep to which muscle?
    1. Biceps femoris
    2. Rectus femoris
    3. Vastus medialis
    4. Vastus lateralis
24. Which statement correctly compares pennate and parallel muscle arrangements in terms of force production and range of motion?
    1. Pennate muscles produce less force and greater range of motion than parallel muscles.
    2. Parallel muscles produce more force but less range of motion than pennate muscles.
    3. Pennate muscles produce greater force but have less range of motion than parallel muscles.
    4. Parallel and pennate muscles produce equal force and equal range of motion.
25. A circular (sphincter) muscle fascicle arrangement is especially suited to which functional role?
    1. Generating maximal force over a short distance
    2. Stabilizing a single large joint
    3. Opening and closing body orifices
    4. Producing very fine, precise finger movements
26. When the sternocleidomastoid muscles on the right and left sides contract simultaneously, the primary movement produced is which of the following?
    1. Rotation of the head to the same side
    2. Lateral flexion of the neck to the same side
    3. Flexion of the neck and head anteriorly
    4. Extension of the neck and head posteriorly
27. Which muscle is a primary agonist for abduction of the arm at the glenohumeral (shoulder) joint from 15 to about 90 degrees?
    1. Supraspinatus
    2. Pectoralis major
    3. Deltoid
    4. Latissimus dorsi
28. Which of the following muscle pairs is correctly matched as antagonist and agonist at the same joint?
    1. Biceps brachii and brachialis during elbow flexion
    2. Quadriceps femoris and tibialis anterior during knee extension
    3. Triceps brachii and biceps brachii during elbow extension
    4. Gastrocnemius and soleus during plantar flexion
29. Contraction of both the rectus abdominis and the external oblique muscles on both sides of the body at the same time primarily results in which movement?
    1. Trunk extension
    2. Trunk flexion
    3. Lateral flexion of the spine to one side
    4. Pure rotation of the trunk without flexion
30. Which muscle group acts as a powerful antagonist to the hamstring muscles during extension of the knee?
    1. Gastrocnemius–soleus complex
    2. Quadriceps femoris
    3. Gluteal group
    4. Adductor group of the thigh
31. Which muscle is most directly responsible for dorsiflexion of the foot at the ankle joint during the swing phase of gait?
    1. Gastrocnemius
    2. Soleus
    3. Tibialis anterior
    4. Fibularis (peroneus) longus
32. Which head and neck movement would be most impaired if both sternocleidomastoid muscles were paralyzed?
    1. Extension of the head
    2. Lateral flexion of the neck to one side
    3. Flexion of the neck so the chin moves toward the chest
    4. Elevation of the scapula
33. Which of the following best explains why the gluteus medius is clinically important in maintaining a normal gait pattern?
    1. It extends the hip during push‑off.
    2. It flexes the hip during swing phase.
    3. It abducts the thigh and stabilizes the pelvis in the frontal plane during single‑leg stance.
    4. It laterally rotates the thigh to initiate walking.